So, this sounds off, and I’m really not sure I buy it, but it was interesting enough to share. From Schweizer’s commentary on Matthew I quoted yesterday:
“If, then, we follow the Old Testament in understanding the righteousness of God as the power of love seeking to carry the day on earth and win men’s hearts, we can no longer make a sharp distinction between God’s actions with respect to men and the human actions that spring from God’s. The question is only one of emphasis.
Earlier, he made this claim:
“[In the OT, God’s] righteousness is without exception salvation for his people (Isa. 4:5; Ps. 22:31; 40:10; 69;28; etc.), which of course includes judgement upon Israel’s oppressors.
That seems fairly obvious. But how we get from that to righteousness = love I don’t understand.